Instrument Flying Handbook Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• When is an IFR flight plan automatically cancelled?
• How many satellites are in view at all times?
• Turn indicators/coordinators rely on which gyro characteristic?
• There are two methods an autopilot can function in GA. What are they?
• Why will an aircraft's tailplane collect ice before the wings?
• One assumption of obstacle departure procedures is crossing the runway threshold at how many feet AGL?
• Which of the following is a symptom caused by precipitation static?
• What is the mask angle in satellite navigation?
• What is the primary sensory response of the otolith organ?
• The MSA circle in the example provides obstacle clearance for what purpose and how much clearance?
• How often is the DME ID signal transmitted relative to the VOR/LOC ID?
• Which marker is White and associated with CAT II DH?
• Which configuration is likely to give slightly erroneous readings to the static instruments?
• In turbulence, how should the pilot configure the aircraft?
• Which statement is true about CAT III operations?
• St. Elmo's fire occurs when the air becomes charged and discharges between what?
• What should you do as soon as you suspect a tailplane stall?
• What is the primary means of navigation in oceanic airspace?
• Can a VFR GPS be used as the primary navigation source for IFR flight?
• Transponders must be on in which airspace?
• Which region is characterized by the need to add power to decrease airspeed?
• What symbol indicates an MEA/MOCA/MAA change that occurs in the middle of a route (not at a Navaid)?
• In the 5-digit Julian date format shown as 05300, which of the following correctly identifies the year and the day of year?
• What are the three sensory systems?
• Which publication contains current NOTAMs?
• What is the typical top altitude of Class D airspace that is given to radar controllers?
• A VFR on top clearance describes operating at VFR altitudes while remaining on which flight plan?
• What is the total width of a standard airway in nautical miles?
• Air pressure inside the cabin is lower than outside. What primarily causes this difference?
• What distance from the airport must the approach mode be activated for it to work?
• In ILS terminology, LOC is primarily associated with which function?
• Explain RNP
• Which reporting accuracy is specified for ETA reporting when outside radar?
• Which of the following is a type of special use airspace?
• Which statement best describes when a Turn Coordinator displays roll information?
• When will a pilot most often fly a full approach?
• Which statement describes the day blind spot?
• GPS is affected by weather?
• If you are operating on top of a cloud layer, you are typically in which weather condition?
• Which icing type affects the engine's induction system?
• Which radar approach type provides azimuth and elevation guidance?
• What is a back course marker?
• In the region of normal command, what must be done to increase speed?
• What is RAIM used for in GPS navigation?
• Earth rotates at how many degrees per hour?
• What does 'at pilot's discretion' mean when cleared for the approach?
• Which statement best describes how load factor changes with bank angle in a turn?
• A full needle deflection of the CDI means the aircraft is ___ degrees or more off course?
• When flying into lower temperature, the true altitude is relative to the altimeter: higher or lower?
• Which airspeed is shown on the instrument?
• The semicircular canals detect angular acceleration around which axis?
• What does precision runway monitoring allow for?
• Which factor most directly increases thunderstorm severity?
• A VOR/DME provides which two pieces of information?
• What two pieces of information does the autopilot turn coordinator provide about a turn?
• A VOR ground station is oriented to which type of north?
• Obstacle Departure Procedures assume the aircraft will turn after crossing the runway threshold at how many feet AGL?
• Where is the rate of descent table found?
• In non-DRVSM airspace between FL290 and FL410, what is the appropriate eastbound flight level?
• On RNAV route labeling, what does the letter Q indicate?
• According to the rule of thumb, how should you apply bar width on the attitude indicator for altitude corrections?
• When should the outbound leg timer be started in a hold?
• How many satellites are in view to provide global GPS operation?
• What is the rule of thumb for correcting a small altitude deviation using the VSI relative to the attitude indicator?
• Obstacle Departure Procedures assume the aircraft can climb at what rate per nautical mile?
• If a pilot has reported leaving an assigned altitude, what must they obtain to return to that altitude?
• ASR stands for what?
• What is the correct order to adjust controls when leveling off from a descent?
• During a GPS approach, which alternate instruments and ground stations must be operational?
• On a GPS approach, what are the enroute and terminal CDI sensitivities?
• RVR is measured as which type of range?
• How does water content affect the severity of a thunderstorm?
• ATC weather systems cannot detect the presence or absence of ___.
• Where are the nonstandard takeoff minimums for an airport published?
• How should you maneuver the aircraft when going missed before the MAP?
• What is the gyro difference between the turn indicator and the turn coordinator?
• How does the airplane react to a tailplane stall?
• What are the two types of radar approaches?
• How close together do runways need to be for ATC to issue a sidestep?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed mandatory ATC report?
• What does the 'primary and supporting' method refer to in basic attitude instrument flying?
• Which marker’s pitch is associated with the middle marker?
• How will an increase in airspeed affect a tailplane stall?
• How old can ARTCC weather data be?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a DRVSM qualification?
• During cruise, when can a pilot change altitude without ATC permission?
• If RAIM capability is lost, what action should a pilot take?
• What three circumstances will allow a plane to leave a hold?
• Which statement best defines a space wave?
• Why will a DME run out of range before a VOR?
• Which frequencies are emitted by the Localizer on the left and right channels?
• What is the approximate upper altitude of the troposphere as given in the material?
• Describe the descent minima for CAT I, CAT II, and CAT III approaches.
• Which atmospheric layer hosts most weather phenomena?
• Which statement best describes Hold in lieu of a procedure turn?
• As airspeed decreases, which elevator input is needed?
• When are groundspeed values given through DME accurate?
• Aircraft approach categories are based on stall speed multiplied by 1.3 in the landing configuration. Which option correctly states this factor?
• Which term describes the outward force felt in a turning aircraft, opposite to the centripetal force?
• Which airspeed is corrected for instrument and position errors?
• How many degrees of pitch do the wings on the attitude indicator represent?
• Who is responsible for maintaining separation between IFR flights while enroute?
• What is the rule of thumb for when to start rolling out from a turn?
• What is the main limitation of the RNAV system?
• What does VFR over the top mean, and is an IFR flight plan required?
• Which option correctly describes the GPS control system components?
• Which layer marks the upper boundary beyond which the standard temperature lapse rate does not continue to decrease?
• What causes adverse yaw during a coordinated turn?
• Which part detects angular acceleration?
• In a DME arc navigation, after the first 90-degree turn, what adjustment should be made to the CDI?
• Which atmospheric layer is defined by the end of the standard lapse rate?
• Which description best corresponds to the 'space' functional element of GPS?
• What does a negative 'T' inside a triangle indicate on certain aviation charts?
• Which configuration or maneuver is typically in the region of reversed command?
• What are two common errors of the ILS?
• Which of the following is not a parasite drag type?
• On a no gyro/radar approach, what kind of turns should be used before the final approach?
• When may a pilot need to add corrections to their altimeter for obstacle clearance?
• What is a compass locator and what is it used for?
• What is an important consideration when using the VSI?
• What are the four levels of icing?
• What component prevents compass fluid from bursting out of the case during temperature changes?
• Aircraft approach categories are based on what factor?
• To counter adverse yaw, which control input is recommended?
• ATC does not provide separation for aircraft in which scenario?
• Between FL290 and FL410, the DRVSM vertical separation minimum is what?
• If a GPS receiver can choose not to use a particular satellite, what is the minimum number of satellites required to run RAIM with baro aiding?
• What is load factor?
• What does the Turn Coordinator show? When?
• If RAIM is degraded but GPS is still functional, what is the recommended action?
• How should you adjust minimums when one or more component of an approach is out of service? Where is this information found?
• When using the alternate static source, the airspeed indicator will indicate higher or lower than normal?
• Which statement about radar vectors by towers is correct?
• Area Navigation (RNAV) presents which data to the pilot?
• What do most GA autopilot systems control?
• What are the fundamentals of instrument flight?
• As airspeed decreases, which rudder input is typically required to maintain coordinated turn?
• In a level turn, which force acts outward to oppose the horizontal component of lift?
• Parallel ILS approaches can allow simultaneous approaches under which separation condition?
• Which of the following is a mandatory ATC report?
• What are the two main types of aerodynamic drag?
• What are the three functional elements of GPS?
• Which statement about lines of magnetic flux is true?
• When should the inbound leg timer be started in a hold?
• How many satellites does a typical GPS receiver need to determine integrity using RAIM, assuming baro aiding?
• What must the departure controller provide in order for the tower controller to issue a takeoff clearance?
• What are the two methods for basic attitude instrument flying? What is the difference?
• The 2000 ft separation between FL290 and FL410 applies under which condition?
• When flying a DP, what must the pilot have at minimum?
• In GA autopilot terminology, a 'position based' autopilot maintains a relationship to what reference?
• What does a negative 'T' symbol inside a triangle indicate on aviation charts?
• On a front course localizer depiction, which side of the arrowhead is shaded to indicate the front course?
• Which force provides the inward pull toward the center of a turning flight path?
• What is the rule of thumb for the bank angle needed for a standard rate turn based on airspeed?
• Which of the following is a listed example of special use airspace?
• Which four items does GPS provide to the pilot?
• Which of the following is NOT a method for filing an IFR flight plan?
• What are the courses oriented from a VOR station called?
• Which of the following can block GPS signal?
• What is required on all random RNAV routes?
• What does the term 'cruise xxxx FT' indicate in flight planning?
• Precipitation static can cause which of the following problems?
• What is an LDA?
• Is the pilot expected to turn inbound on a final approach course without clearance?
• What are the colors and significance of the marker beacons?
• When are you supposed to execute a sidestep maneuver?
• Which of the following are considered VOR errors?
• Which items should be included in a standard position report?
• What illusion can occur when flying over featureless terrain?
• What does the attitude indicator primarily display?
• Which sensory organ detects linear acceleration and gravity?
• Which force increases load factor in a turn?
• If the GPS approach mode is armed outside the suggested area, when will it arm?
• Which factor related to terrain can block GPS signal?
• On a VFR-on-top clearance, you must remain on which flight plan?
• In DRVSM context, the vertical separation minimum between FL290 and FL410 is reduced to:
• Does a clearance to operate VFR on top cancel your IFR flight plan?
• What does a radio altimeter do?
• What term is used for altitude corrections to compensate for cold temperatures?
• How should you maneuver the aircraft when going missed on a circling approach because you lost the runway?
• In instrument flight fundamentals, what does instrument cross scan emphasize?
• Which wave type is best described as providing long-range navigation?
• What does MAP stand for in instrument approaches?
• When should GPS approach mode be armed during a GPS approach?
• When flying into higher temperature, the true altitude is relative to the altimeter: higher or lower?
• What effect does baro-aiding have on the number of satellites needed for RAIM?
• Space waves are characterized by which true property?
• In class A airspace, the minimum altitude separation is 2000 ft between which flight levels? (non DRVSM)
• What are the three common methods of scanning?
• Which statement describes the day blind spot?
• Under precision runway monitoring, the permissible separation between parallel runways is within which range?
• What is the first course of action a pilot should take when encountering icing?
• Which eye cells are used in daylight?
• How does the DME ID signal compare in pitch to the VOR/LOC ID signal?
• On a non-precision approach, how is the missed approach point determined?
• Which trio lists the three parasite drag types?
• How often are enroute charts revised?
• What does ice do to the stalling characteristics in relation to speed and AOA?
• Where is the Inoperative Components or Visual Aids Table located for adjustments to minimums?
• Explain the GPS control system and what it consists of.
• How wide is a standard airway?
• Pilots may not operate an aircraft at any airport below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless:
• What is the FSS phone number?
• What distance measurement is provided by GPS DMEs?
• Which statement best defines a sky wave?
• Which airspeed is corrected for compression in the pitot tube?
• What is the maximum width of an SDF final approach course?
• In an ILS, which component provides the visual cues such as PAPI or VASI?
• An Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) system comprises which components?
• What does ARTCC stand for?
• Which event is listed as a mandatory ATC report?
• What is considered a steep turn in instrument flying?
• RVR is a measure of which type of range?
• What is the rule of thumb for leading a descent level-off by?
• Tailplane stall is most likely to occur under which condition?
• When must a pilot actively monitor the alternate navigation means?
• Which marker beacon is Blue and marks the glide slope intercept?
• Which control should be adjusted first when leveling off from a climb?
• What is the floor of an airway unless otherwise specified?
• On an approach to an airport, when should you switch from center to CTAF or tower?
• WAAS is best described as which of the following?
• Which statement is true about Class A separation as described?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three common scanning methods?
• What kind of turns should be made when on a no gyro/radar approach after the final approach?
• During turbulence, which set of actions best describes proper configuration?
• What generally causes fixation in instrument scanning?
• What generally causes omission in cross-checking?
• Which statement correctly describes the Localizer Type Directional Aid (LDA)?
• Does a pilot still have to comply with weather minimums after accepting a PAR or ASR?
• How should IFR departures from an airport without a control tower be conducted?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a type of icing?
• How far apart do parallel ILS approaches have to be?
• Which instrument portrays both instantly and directly the aircraft's flight attitude?
• Which axes are typically controlled by GA autopilots?
• What is the acceptable deviation for following ATC speed assignments?
• What happens if an IFR clearance issued for departure from an uncontrolled field expires before takeoff?
• What type of distance does GPS measure?
• What does LAAS stand for?
• What bank angle corresponds to a standard rate turn at 120 knots, using the rule of thumb?
• Which instrument is used to observe rate of climb or descent and is affected by lag characteristics?
• Explain roll upset.
• Circling approaches are typically planned when the final approach course is offset by more than how many degrees?
• VFR over the top means you operate above the cloud layer and does not require an IFR flight plan. Is this statement true?
• Fog can form by which method?
• In class A airspace, minimum altitude separation is 1000 ft between which flight levels?
• Which airspeed is corrected for non-standard temperature/pressure?
• The DG will be off by how many degrees per hour due to Earth's rotation?
• Which VSI indication occurs when using the alternate static source?
• What is the difference between ASR and PAR?
• How many levels of flight are there between FL290 and FL410? (non DRVSM)
• Which term describes the GPS distance measurement that is based on time?
• Tower Enroute Control (TEC) is primarily used to manage traffic in which airspace?
• Which statement describes radar vectors capability by towers?
• Do pilots require ATC clearance to fly a standard instrument departure (SID)?
• What is the primary pitch instrument in level flight according to the source?
• What must a pilot understand about the vertical guidance on an RNAV approach?
• What depiction must pilots have when flying a DP?
• What action should you take if you cannot see the runway at a DA/DH according to approach rules?
• Identify the three types of course reversals used in instrument procedures.
• If a component of an instrument approach is out of service, which practice is followed for minimums?
• When would you use tower enroute control (TEC)?
• Which statement describes a mandatory ATC report related to airspeed?
• Which statement about otolith organs is true?
• What is TIS and how is it provided?
• What minimum obstacle clearance do circling approaches provide?
• Which option lists the three types of course reversals exactly as used in instrument procedures?
• Which VOR-related region causes unreliable indications when directly overhead the station?
• Under which condition can an IFR flight plan be filed inflight?
• What is the mnemonic for compass turns in the northern hemisphere?
• After accepting a PAR or ASR, do you still have to comply with weather minimums?
• What is the minimum IFR altitude?
• What does a VFR on top clearance allow you to do?
• Marker beacon transmit on which frequency?
• How often should a DG be re-adjusted?
• Which statement accurately describes the GPS 'space' segment?
• Which two factors can a pilot modify to influence lift besides flaps?
• How do the semicircular canals detect head movement?
• Do aircraft using GPS navigation need an alternate means of navigation?
• Which navigation aid uses space waves?
• RNAV presents to the pilot what information from RNAV?
• How far apart are satellites spaced for complete coverage?
• Where to look for altitude corrections based on temperature?
• In the non-DRVSM discussion, eastbound and westbound flight levels are:
• What are the different types of icing?
• Which item counts as the runway being in sight?
• What is the general range of a VOR station?
• Which option is NOT one of the three sensory systems used in aviation physiology?
• Most navigation systems use which type of wave according to common descriptions?
• Which instrument do most modern autopilots use for information?
• Under precision runway monitoring, the minimum separation distance is within which range?
• Circling approaches are designed for which two conditions?
• Which departure procedure can be flown without ATC clearance (unless otherwise noted)?
• Which are the three components of an ILS?
• In uncontrolled airspace, which statement about ATC separation is true?
• If you want to perform extra laps on a hold in lieu of a procedure turn to descend, what should you do?
• Which of the following is NOT a level of icing?
• What illusion can occur when flying into fog?
• What is the radius of the MSA circle described?
• 24 satellites are needed for global performance, yet there are 30. What are the extra six and what is their function?
• Attitude and heading instruments rely on which gyro characteristic?
• What is the approximate composition of Earth's atmosphere by percent?
• When using the alternate static source, which indications will be observed?
• In a DME arc procedure, what should you do after completing the first 90-degree turn?
• How does rain on the windscreen affect horizon perception?
• Which options list the common errors when cross checking?
• With RAIM, the enroute/terminal CDI sensitivity can be reduced to what value?
• How does GPS determine the distance from a satellite to the aircraft?
• Where can you find VOR checkpoints?
• Which option lists the FSS phone number in a shuffled order?
• Which statement best describes a ground wave?
• What kind of turns should be made when on a no gyro/radar approach before the final approach?
• When may an IFR flight plan be cancelled?
• Which statement best describes Class D airspace height and radar assignment, with the correct option in the third position?
• What is the rule of thumb for how long to lead a climb level-off by?
• What is TCAS and how does it operate?
• What is an SDF?
• Which gas makes up approximately 78 percent of Earth's atmosphere?
• Which control should be adjusted first when leveling off from a descent?
• What does ATC refer to all weather representations as?
• How are high and low RNAV routes shown on the charts?
• Which temperature range provides the highest probability of lightning strikes?
• What are the range, altitude, and angular width for Localizer reception?
• Explain a Departure Procedure.
• Describe the DME ID signal?
• To fly a STAR, what minimum documentation must a pilot possess?
• What does the acronym ODP stand for in IFR departure procedures?
• Which atmospheric layer do pilots primarily operate in near the Earth's surface?
• When is the RNAV groundspeed readout most accurate?
• Flight plans expire when not opened after how long post ETOD?
• What does UNOS stand for in compass navigation?
• What kind of distance do DMEs measure?
• According to Newton's Third Law, what causes lift on an airplane wing?
• What does DRVSM stand for?
• What is the key benefit to WAAS when used for an approach?
• On a no gyro/radar approach, what kind of turns should be used after the final approach?
• How should a pilot respond to a weather advisory if avoidance is desired?
• Fog forms when air is cooled to the dew point, causing what?
• What is the ceiling of a V airway?
• A VOR/DME provides azimuth and which other quantity?
• If you need to gain 100 ft, what VSI rate is commonly used?
• What does an IFR pilot need in order to deviate from their assigned course?
• While flying into clouds you may smell an odor of electrical fire; what is a possible cause?
• In the example 05300, what does the '05' portion represent?
• What is the normal distance used for a procedure turn?